1. Refer to the exhibit. Provided that routing is configured correctly, what command can a user on R1 enter to telnet R2?
    telnet 172.16.193.2 3005 /source-interface Loopback0
2. Refer to the exhibit. You have configured a VRF named Blue on R1 as shown. Which action must you take to enable uRPF on the…
    Configure the ip verify unicast source reachable via rx allow default command on interface E1/0
3. Which two statements about WAN rate-based Ethernet circuits are true? (Choose two)
    The CIR represents the amount of traffic that can pass from a customer to an ISP over the circuit.
    QoS is performed at the CE edge to prevent the service provider from dropping excessive traffic.
4. Which statement about MAC authentication Bypass is true?
    It can initiate after 802.1X authentication times out.
5. What does reverse path forwarding ensure in a multicast network?
    It ensures a loop-free multicast network.
6. Which ISATAP representation of the IPv4 address 209.165.200.227 when the IPv6 prefix is 2001:DB8:1234:5678::/64 is true?
    2001:DB8:1234:5678:0000:5EFE:D1A5:C8E3
7. Which IS-IS feature allows an IS-IS router to determine a path to a prefix without performing an SPF computation?
    Partial Route computation
8. Which two statements about IPsec VTIs are true? (Choose two)
    They support IP and multicast traffic.
    They support tunnel mode only.
9. How does an IPv6 host automatically generate a global address?
    It appends its interface identifier to the network prefixes contained in Router Advertisement messages.
10. How many address families can a single OSPFv3 instance support?
     1
11. What is the initial BFD state?
     Down
12. Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?
     Stub
13. Which two statements about QoS classification and marking are true? (Choose two)
     It can classify packets based on their source IP and MAC addresses only.
     CAR rate policies use CoS, IP precedence, and prefix lists to match traffic.
14. Refer to the exhibit. An IPv6 tunnel is configured between site A and site B. Which feature does the tunnel support?
     Site-to-site tunnel mode.
15. Company A have two remote sites, which are connected to a common ISP by BGP. At each site, company A is using the …
     Allowas-in
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the purpose of the as-set argument of the aggregate-address command?
     It provides an AS path in the aggregate advertisement that includes the AS numbers of the component members.
17. Which IPv4 feature can limit indiscriminate flooding of multicast traffic on a VLAN?
     IGMP Snooping.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two)
     Setting the priority of this switch to 0 for VLAN 1 would cause it to become the new root.
     Spanning tree PortFast should not be enabled on GigabitEthernet2/1.
19. Which three criteria are used for stackwise election of a master switch?
     Lowest MAC address
     Longest uptime
     User-selected priority
20. Which two statements about HDLC operations in asynchronous balanced mode are true? (Choose two)
     Either device can send frames at any time.
     Either device can initiate transmission of frames.
21. Which three features support object tracking? (Choose two)
     HSRP
     vPC
     EEM
22. An IPv6 network has different MTUs on different segments, if the network is experiencing reliability issues, which option is…
     ICMPv6 is filtered.
23. A host on an Ethernet segment has a different subnet mask than the default gateway. What can be done to allow it to co…,
     Enable proxy ARP on the default gateway.
24. Which two IPv6 extension headers are valid?
     Encapsulating Security Payload
     Mobility
25. Which feature can you implement to most effectively protect customer traffic in a rate-limited WAN Ethernet service?
     HCBWFQ
26. How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?
     Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.
27. Which two OSPF network type require the use of DR and BDR? (Choose two)
     Broadcast networks
     Non-broadcast networks
28. Refer to the exhibit. You notice that neighboring RIP IPv6 routers cannot reach OSPFv3 routes on R1. Which reason for the…
     The redistribution metric is too large.
29. Refer to the exhibit. Your organization has two offices, Site 1 and Site2, which are connected by a provider backbone, as…
     PE Site 1 Fa1/0 and PE Site 2 Fa0/0
30. Which option describes how a router responds if LSA throttling is configured and it receives the identical LSA before the…
     The LSA is ignored.
31. Which IS-IS topology allows IPv4 and IPv6 destinations to use the same path toward a remote network?
     Single-area multiple-topology
32. Which two statements about the route summarization are true?
     EIGRP learned routes are automatically summarized.
     When a packet is routed to a destination, the router chooses the most specific prefix from the routing table.
33. …ut a type 4 SLA in OSPF is true?
     …hat is originated by an ABR, that is flooded throughout the AS, and that describes a route to the ASBR.
34. Which two conditions must be met by default to implement the BGP multipath feature? (Choose two)
     All attributes must have the same values.
     The next-hop routers must be different.
35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the capture are true? (Choose two)
     It is set to run for five minutes.
     It continues to capture data after the buffer is full.
36. Which two statements about OSPF route filtering are true? (Choose two)
     It can be based on the external route tag.
     It can be based on the source router ID.
37. Which IP SLA operation requires Cisco endpoints?
     UDP Jitter for VoIP
38. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?
     The port rejects inbound advertisements and router redirect messages.
39. Which are three ways to increase traceroute performance?
     Disable DNS lookups
     Set a timeout value of less than 3 seconds
     Use a probe count of 2 or lower
40. For which two purposes can RTCP be used? (Choose two)
     Providing out-of-band statistics and control information for RTP sessions
     Collecting information about VoIP service quality
41. Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring Router1 and Router2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional configurations ar…
     Loopback 0 on Router 1 must be advertised to Router2.
     Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire -class R1toR2
42. Which feature prevents multicast flooding to routers on a common VLAN that are not a part of the multicast distributor?
     PIM Snooping
43. Which three statements about AToM are true? (Choose three)
     The PE routers must share the same VC identifier.
     It requires MPLS between PE routers.
     The attachment circuit is configured with the xconnect command.
44. Which statement about the BGP scope of the cost community is true?
     It is shared with IBGP and confederation peers.
45. Which two protocols are used by the management plane? (Choose two)
     Telnet
     FTP
46. Which three pieces of information are carried in OSPF type-3 LSAs? (Choose three)
     Metric
     IP subnets
     Subnet mask
47. Which two loop-prevention mechanisms are implemented in BGP? (Choose two)
     A route with its own AS in the AS_Path is dropped automatically if the route reenters its own AS.
     A route with its own cluster ID in the CLUSTER_LIST is dropped automatically when the routes reenters its own AS…
48. Which command can you enter to configure a built-in policer with minimum guaranteed bandwidth without starving ot…
     Bandwidth
49. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the CM-SILVER class map is true?
     It matches traffic in access list ACL-SILVER with DSCP value AF21 only.
50. Refer to the exhibit. The Main1 and Branch1 switches are connected directly over an MPLS pseudowire, and both run……Main1 switch. Which two actions can you take to restore connectivity and prevent the problem from recurring? (Choose two)
     Enable errdisable recovery on both the Main1 and Branch1 switches.
     Issue the shutdown and no shutdown commands on the Branch1 switch uplink to the B1 router only.
51. Which three fields are part of a TCN BPDU? (Choose three)
     Type
     Protocol ID
     Version
52. Which two discovery mechanism does LDP support? (Choose two)
     Extended
     Basic
53. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the IP MTU of tunnel 0?
     1476
54. On a network using DiffServ, which option refers to the actions that applied to a packet as it moves through the network…
     DSCP
55. Which two IP packet attributes are used by Traditional NetFlow? (Choose two)
     IP destination address
     IP source address
56. Which STP feature can protect the network environment from loops in case of software failure?
     BPDU guard
57. Which two statements about the logging are true?
     Logs can be displayed on the console or on a remote terminal.
     Log messages include a mnemonic that describes the message.
58. In which way does the Bridge Assurance mechanism modify the default spanning-tree behavior in an effort to prevent…
     BPDUs are sent bidirectional on all active network ports, including blocked and alternate ports.
59. Which two methods can you use to limit the range for EIGRP queries? (Choose two)
     Configure stub routers in the EIGRP domain.
     Summarize routes at the boundary routers of the EIGRP domain.
60. Which three factors does Cisco PFR use to calculate the best exit path? (Choose two)
     Delay
     Loss
     Reachability
61. Which statement is true about LLDP?
     LLDP provides VTP support.
62. Which two statements about IGPs are true? (Choose two)
     RIPv2 and EIGRP support VLSM.
     OSPF and IS-IS are classless protocols.
63. Which two statements about IPv6 6to4 tunnels are true? (Choose two)
     They are point-to-multipoint tunnels.
     Sites use address from the 2002::/16 prefix.
64. Which two statements about Cisco IOS XE are true? (Choose two)
     Its functions run as multiple separate processes in the OS.
     It is deployed in a Linux-based environment.
65. Which prefix list matches and permits all RFC 1918 network 10.0.0.0 routes that have masks of /16 through /24?
     Ip prefix-list foo seq 10 permit 10.0.0.0/8 ge 16 le 24
66. Which action does router poisoning take that serves as a loop-prevention method?
     It immediately sends routing updates with an unreachable metric to all devices.
67. Which statement about EIGRP request packet is true?
     They are transmitted unreliably.
68. What are two general SDN characteristics? (Choose two)
     Southbound interfaces are interfaces used between the control plane and the data plane.
     The separation of the control plane from the data plane.
69. Which three benefits of virtualizing the DMZ are true? (Choose three)
     Analytics
     Per-app network functions and operation
     Dynamic and automated service insertion with focus on security
70. Which statement correctly describes Ansible operations and playbooks?
     Ansible is agentless and uses playbooks formatted in YAML.
71. Which three connectivity models for vEdge Site Architecture are true? (Choose three)
     Hybrid with Fallback
     Secure virtual connectivity
     Full SD-WAN
72. One of your clients which is in the manufacturer area is after a solution in order to manage all his fog nodes. Which ma…
     Cisco Prime Infrastructure
73. Which three campus fabric nodes in SD-Access architecture are true? (Choose three)
     Fabric border nodes
     Fabric edge nodes
     Control plane nodes
74. Which description correctly describes Git?
     Git is a version control system for tracking changes in files.
75. Which are the three recommended steps to implement your Risk-Based IoT Security Program? (Choose three)
     Assess
     Analyze
     Implement
76. Which three basic types of SD-WAN deployments are out on the market? (Choose three)
     Internet-based SD-WAN
     SD-WAN as-a-Services
     Managed service SD-WAN
77. Which three statements correctly describe the encoding used by NETCONF and RESTCONF? (Choose two)
     RESTCONF uses XML-encoded data.
     NETCONF uses XML-encoded data.
     RESTCONF uses JSON-encoded data.
78. Which two options are requirements for AToM support? (Choose two)
     MPLS must be configured with an LSP in the SP core.
     The PE routers must be able to communicate with each other over IP.

2019年3月4日